"Federal Deposit Insurance Corp. Chairman Sheila Bair said she expects her agency will finance as much as 0 billion in purchases of residential and commercial real estate loans."

I’m sorry, can some other please read this news story from yesterday very, very, very carefully, and tell me, does it or does it not explain that a private investor can put up 00 and acquire 0,000 worth of real estate with the government matching 00 and loaning ,000 from the FDIC?

http://news.yahoo.com/s/ap/20090324/ap_on_go_ca_st_pe/bank_rescue_88

So, for ,000, a private investor can acquire a 0,000 property, forget the ,000 matching grant, and slowly repay the government 2,000?

What happens if that investor defaults? Who covers the loan payments to the FDIC so that it will stay solvent?

Since when does the FDIC make billions in loans?

The last I read about the FDIC a few months ago said it did not have enough money then to cover everyone’s deposits if the banks all collapse.

Why then would it be tapped to send 0 billion out its doors on a dubious economic rescue plan with full understanding that the whole plan is a risk and may fail?

The rich bankers will get their money from the government loans as speculators and the naive rush to get these properties that they won’t be ablle to make money off of in this economy — lol, the banks cannot make money off of them, by what magic will the private investor using government money to get them from the banks be able to make money off them?

So, the banks and those who own them will be held up for awhile, but when the problem behind this economic mess is not truly addressed, they will run the risk of failing again and there will be no money in the FDIC to cover the consumer’s deposits? But the rich will have their money, courtesy of 0 billion from the FDIC?

Oh my.

Is that what is happening here?

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